EMS Provider Skills and Patient Assessment | Exams Medicine | Docsity (2024)

Download EMS Provider Skills and Patient Assessment and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity! EMT-JBL B FINAL PREP (820 Questions and Answers). Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? Select one: A. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination B. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic C. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up" D. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever - Correct answers A National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. Select one: A. unify EMS providers under a single medical director B. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States C. reduce expenses at the local and state levels D. facilitate a national EMS labor group - Correct answers B The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. Select one: A. DCAP B. HIPAA C. APGAR D. CQI - Correct answers B American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. trends in the EMS community B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists C. evidence-based research D. theories ready for field trial - Correct answers C Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients C. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients D. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting - Correct answers A Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. AEMT B. Paramedic C. EMR D. EMT - Correct answers D Online medical control requires __________. Select one: A. phone or radio contact with the medical director B. written protocols approved by medical control C. a physician's presence on the scene of the call D. the presence of an advanced-level provider - Correct answers A Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. B. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. - Correct answers D You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. Select one: A. scope of practice B. patient advocacy C. abuse of authority D. undue hardship - Correct answers B C. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call - Correct answers B The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. local protocols. B. the lead EMT's decision. C. regional trauma guidelines. D. EMS research. - Correct answers D You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. B. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. C. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. D. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. - Correct answers C Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption B. Developing a social network outside of EMS C. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind D. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls - Correct answers B When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. C. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. D. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. - Correct answers B While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? Select one: A. Indirect contact B. Airborne transmission C. Direct contact D. Vector-borne transmission - Correct answers A Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? Select one: A. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. B. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. C. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. D. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages. - Correct answers B Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. B. are older than 35 years of age. C. have a weak immune system. D. received a hepatitis B vaccination. - Correct answers A Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. touches another person without his or her consent. B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. C. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. D. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. - Correct answers C Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. A concrete barricade B. Stacked empty barrels C. A large cluster of shrubs D. Behind a car door - Correct answers A Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. - Correct answers B The EMT's first priority is __________. Select one: A. treatment and transport B. rapid response C. personal safety D. empathy for all patients - Correct answers C Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: Select one: A. quickly begin the triage process. B. put on high-visibility safety vests. C. assist with vehicle stabilization. D. report to the incident commander. - Correct answers B Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. inanimate objects. B. direct contact. C. animals or insects. D. smoke or dust. - Correct answers C Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: Select one: They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: Select one: A. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. B. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. C. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. D. transport the patient without providing any treatment. - Correct answers B Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Informed B. Formal C. Expressed D. Implied - Correct answers C Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? Select one: a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. b. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. - Correct answers A You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. B. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response. - Correct answers B As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: Select one: A. the wishes of the general public. B. locally accepted protocols. C. the priorities of the medical director. D. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. - Correct answers B Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? Select one: A. Preventing insurance fraud B. Protecting patient privacy C. Controlling insurance costs D. Ensuring access to insurance - Correct answers B Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Driver's license B. Insurance card C. Voter registration card D. Social Security card - Correct answers A Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation B. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation - Correct answers A To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. Select one: A. public forums with their medical director B. a privacy officer to answer questions C. online access to patient records D. an anonymous reporting system - Correct answers B Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B. decomposition of the body's tissues. C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. - Correct answers B When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened - Correct answers B You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? Select one: A. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. B. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. C. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. D. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. - Correct answers B During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: Select one: A. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. B. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. C. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. D. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. - Correct answers B D. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. - Correct answers D At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. make another attempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. B. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. C. place both patients in the ambulance and transport them at once. D. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch. - Correct answers D Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs B. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks C. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance D. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers - Correct answers C Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Mobile repeater B. Scanner C. Simplex station D. Duplex station - Correct answers B Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. B. a brief summary of the care you provided. C. a brief history of the patient's current problem. D. your perception of the severity of the problem. - Correct answers A Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is correct? Select one: A. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. B. It is a frequency that is used exclusively by EMTs to communicate with one another in the field. C. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user. D. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control. - Correct answers A After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: Select one: A. confirm the order in your own words. B. ask the physician to repeat the order. C. perform the intervention as ordered. D. repeat the order to medical control word for word. - Correct answers D You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? Select one: A. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." B. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." C. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." D. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?" - Correct answers A The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. B. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. C. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse. - Correct answers D When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. using coded medical language. B. withholding medical history data. C. refraining from objective statements. D. not disclosing his or her name. - Correct answers D Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: Select one: A. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate. B. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. C. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification. D. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual. - Correct answers C When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: Select one: A. lengthy and complete. B. spoken in a loud voice. C. coded and scripted. D. brief and easily understood. - Correct answers D You are providing care to a 61-year-old female complaining of chest pain that is cardiac in origin. Your service utilizes a multiplex communication system. You wish to transmit the patient's electrocardiogram to the hospital. In order to accomplish this, you must: Select one: A. wait until you reach the hospital to transmit the information. B. send the electrocardiogram from the back of the ambulance. C. use the multiplex system to transmit the information . D. be aware that only audio or data transmissions can be sent at any one time. - Correct answers C Select one: A. specialist. B. disease. C. enlargement. D. study of. - Correct answers B Which of the following suffixes mean "two"? Select one: A. "primi-" and "dipl-" B. "dipl-" and "bi-" C. "bi-" and "null-" D. "primi-" and "bi-" - Correct answers B After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hemolysis. B. hemiplegia. C. hemostasis. D. hematemesis. - Correct answers C EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to: Select one: A. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team. B. more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition. C. perform and document more accurate patient assessments. D. determine and document more accurate patient diagnoses. - Correct answers A A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one: A. medial. B. unilateral. C. bilateral. D. proximal. - Correct answers C "Chondro" in the word chondritis means: Select one: A. rib. B. tendon. C. cartilage. D. joint. - Correct answers C The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. spinal cord and sensory nerves. B. brain and sensory nerves. C. brain and spinal cord. D. motor and sensory nerves. - Correct answers C Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: Select one: A. prostate. B. renal duct. C. ureters. D. urethra. - Correct answers C The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. Select one: A. costovertebral angle B. mediastinum C. diaphragm D. costal arch - Correct answers C A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. lactic acid. B. oxygen. C. nitrogen. D. heat. - Correct answers D The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: Select one: A. carbon dioxide and water. B. ATP and glucose. C. glucose and lactic acid. D. uric acid and nitrogen. - Correct answers A A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: Select one: A. atrial contraction. B. ventricular contraction. C. ventricular filling. D. ventricular relaxation. - Correct answers B The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Select one: A. vertebral foramen. B. foramen ovale. C. spinous foramen. D. foramen magnum. - Correct answers D The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. orbit B. occiput C. sphenoid D. mastoid - Correct answers A Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: Select one: A. protocol. B. assessment. C. medication. D. disease. - Correct answers D The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint. Select one: A. gliding B. ball-and-socket C. hinge D. saddle - Correct answers C Select one: A. minute volume is decreased. B. overall tidal volume is increased. C. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. D. inspiratory reserve is increased. - Correct answers A Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? Select one: A. Pressure and pain perception B. Metabolic coordination C. Sensory reception D. Temperature regulation - Correct answers B Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: Select one: A. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance. B. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. C. heart rate and stroke volume. D. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance. - Correct answers B Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? Select one: A. Nervous B. Skeletal C. Endocrine D. Reproductive - Correct answers C Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. kidney. C. liver. D. spleen. - Correct answers D Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: Select one: A. circulating blood glucose levels fall. B. the cells function with adequate oxygen. C. the cells function without oxygen. D. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. - Correct answers B Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Urinary system B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Blood vessels D. Skeletal system - Correct answers D Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. stomach. B. pancreas. C. gallbladder. D. kidneys. - Correct answers C What is the function of the fallopian tubes? Select one: A. To produce progesterone and estrogen B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus C. To supply blood to the uterine lining D. To connect the ovaries - Correct answers B The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: Select one: A. iliac crest. B. sacral symphysis. C. greater trochanter. D. sacroiliac joint. - Correct answers C Children of which age group are considered toddlers? Select one: A. Over 6 years B. 3-6 years C. 1-3 years D. 1 month to 1 year - Correct answers C Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age? Select one: A. Decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels B. Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production C. Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels D. Increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production - Correct answers B The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: Select one: A. atherosclerosis. B. medication use. C. kidney failure. D. hypotension. - Correct answers A The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________. Select one: A. too fast B. too shallow C. too slow D. normal - Correct answers D You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: Select one: A. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. B. is unable to track your movements with her eyes. C. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration. D. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. - Correct answers A Older adults frequently ___________. Select one: A. experience a decrease in body fat as they age B. are unable to overcome medical problems C. take multiple medications A 16-year-old female complains of vagin*l bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. B. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. D. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. - Correct answers A At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? Select one: A. 18 to 24 months B. 24 to 36 months C. 6 to 8 months D. 10 to 18 months - Correct answers D You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. C. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. D. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. - Correct answers B Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? Select one: A. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently B. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up C. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions D. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance - Correct answers B In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: Select one: A. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli. B. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. C. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. D. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. - Correct answers A To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: Select one: A. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. B. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. C. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. D. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. - Correct answers B When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso. Select one: A. 15 to 20 inches B. 5 to 10 inches C. 10 to 15 inches D. 20 to 30 inches - Correct answers A Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Select one: A. Log roll B. Extremity carry C. Direct carry D. Draw sheet method - Correct answers D Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. B. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital. C. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. D. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient. - Correct answers C You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. Select one: A. six B. five C. three D. four - Correct answers D An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? Select one: A. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding. B. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. C. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. D. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. - Correct answers C As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. B. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. C. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. - Correct answers C The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: Select one: A. with a possible cervical spine injury. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Wheeled stretcher B. Long backboard C. Portable stretcher D. Scoop stretcher - Correct answers B In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient? Select one: A. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain B. A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car C. An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke D. A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall - Correct answers A An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: Select one: A. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. B. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. C. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. D. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. - Correct answers D When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: Select one: A. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. B. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. C. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. D. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs. - Correct answers C The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. Select one: A. thorax B. sacrum C. ischium D. coccyx - Correct answers B You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. begin chest compressions and request backup. B. immediately transport the child to the hospital. C. open the airway and give two rescue breaths. D. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds. - Correct answers D Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? Select one: A. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. B. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. C. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. D. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability. - Correct answers C If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: Select one: A. reevaluate his or her airway status. B. auscultate his or her breath sounds. C. determine his or her respiratory rate. D. begin assisting his or her breathing. - Correct answers A An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? Select one: A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension B. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain C. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion D. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain - Correct answers B The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than: Select one: A. 90 to 120 seconds. B. 30 seconds. C. 120 to 180 seconds. D. 60 to 90 seconds. - Correct answers D When a patient's respirations are shallow: Select one: A. carbon dioxide elimination is increased. B. tidal volume is markedly reduced. C. oxygenation occurs more efficiently. D. chest rise will be easily noticeable. - Correct answers B A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. ensure that his airway is patent. B. elevate his legs and keep him warm. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. - Correct answers C Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? Select one: A. Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2 B. Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope C. Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use D. Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis - Correct answers B A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Select one: B. cyanotic and dry. C. pale and moist. D. mottled and cool. - Correct answers A You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: Select one: A. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. B. is restless and is working hard to breathe. C. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. D. has an increased heart rate and retractions. - Correct answers C The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: Select one: A. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex. B. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. C. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. D. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. - Correct answers A Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? Select one: A. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin C. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations - Correct answers A A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. His extremities are cold B. Severe pulmonary edema C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Increased body temperature - Correct answers C Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? Select one: A. Bronchus B. Oropharynx C. Pharynx D. Larynx - Correct answers A A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: Select one: A. nonrebreathing mask. B. mouth-to-mask device. C. nasal cannula. D. bag-valve mask. - Correct answers A Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Select one: A. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. B. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. C. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume. D. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. - Correct answers D Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? Select one: A. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. B. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment. C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. - Correct answers C What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: A. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. B. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. C. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane. D. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. - Correct answers D A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: Select one: A. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. D. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. - Correct answers B You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? Select one: A. 65% B. 45% C. 55% D. 75% - Correct answers C How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. C. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation. D. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. - Correct answers D During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates: Select one: A. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did. C. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. D. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. - Correct answers A An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: Select one: A. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. B. authorization from medical control has been obtained. C. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke. D. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. - Correct answers B Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine? Select one: A. Constricts the blood vessels B. Decreases heart rate and blood pressure C. Dilates passages in the lungs D. Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands - Correct answers B Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: Select one: A. tablets. B. capsules. C. pills. D. caplets. - Correct answers B EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: Select one: A. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg. B. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient. C. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs. D. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. - Correct answers B Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. B. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. C. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. D. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. - Correct answers A You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto- injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: A. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. B. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. C. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. D. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin - Correct answers D In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. patient-assisted B. paramedic-administered C. EMT-administered D. peer-assisted - Correct answers D What medication form does oral glucose come in? Select one: A. Gel B. Liquid C. Suspension D. Fine powder - Correct answers A Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: Select one: A. increases blood return to the right atrium. B. increases myocardial contraction force. C. constricts the veins throughout the body. D. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. - Correct answers D The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: Select one: A. adsorption. B. digestion. C. absorption. D. suspension. - Correct answers A The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________. Select one: A. indication B. dose C. contraindication D. side effect - Correct answers B What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? Select one: A. Intravenous B. Sublingual C. Intraosseous D. Intramuscular - Correct answers D Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch? Select one: A. Transcutaneous B. Intraosseous C. Sublingual D. Subcutaneous - Correct answers A Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unresponsive patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained? A. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. B. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away. C. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. D. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. - Correct answers D In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: Select one: A. hypovolemia. B. hypothermia. C. diaphoresis. D. tachycardia. - Correct answers B You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: A. provide emotional support regarding her sister. B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. C. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. D. determine if she was injured when she fainted. - Correct answers D You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: A. an increased heart rate B. hypothermia C. peripheral vasoconstriction D. peripheral vasodilation - Correct answers C A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: Select one: A. a ruptured aortic aneurysm. B. acute myocardial infarction. C. severe septic hypoperfusion. D. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. - Correct answers D Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: A. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. B. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. C. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. D. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. - Correct answers C You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life- threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. B. repeat your secondary assessment. C. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. D. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. - Correct answers D When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? Select one: A. Prior to transport B. During the primary assessment C. Immediately after the injuries are discovered D. En route to the hospital - Correct answers D Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________. Select one: A. shock B. perfusion C. hypoxia D. hypotension - Correct answers A Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids B. Early administration of high-flow oxygen C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask - Correct answers C Shock due to severe infection is called ________. Select one: A. hypovolemic shock B. anaphylactic shock C. septic shock D. neurogenic shock - Correct answers C Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. B. move her to the ambulance stretcher. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. check her airway for obstructions. - Correct answers D A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. Intravenous fluid administration B. High-flow oxygen administration C. Rapid transport to a trauma center D. Full immobilization of her spine - Correct answers C Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? Select one: A. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation B. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection C. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation C. place the patient supine. D. encourage the patient to cough. - Correct answers D If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should: Select one: A. suction the patient's oropharynx. B. insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. reposition the patient's airway. D. increase the rate of ventilation. - Correct answers C A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately: Select one: A. request an ALS ambulance. B. ventilate with a BVM. C. administer naloxone. D. begin chest compressions. - Correct answers B Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: Select one: A. severe blunt trauma. B. an acute ischemic stroke. C. obstruction of the airway. D. a cardiac dysrhythmia. - Correct answers D Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. gastric distention. B. a fractured sternum. C. liver laceration. D. rib fractures. - Correct answers A CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. occurs every 24 months. B. is delivered by computer. C. involves hands-on practice. D. is self-paced and brief. - Correct answers C The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. B. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. C. performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts. D. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. - Correct answers A Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. B. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. C. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. D. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. - Correct answers B When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress: Select one: A. at least 2 inches. B. between 1 inch and 2 inches. C. more than 2.5 inches. D. at least 1 inch. - Correct answers A If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. remove it B. continue chest compressions C. place the patient on his or her side D. leave it in place - Correct answers A Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves: Select one: A. blind finger sweeps. B. bag-valve mask ventilation. C. abdominal thrusts. D. back slaps. - Correct answers D CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. the carotid pulse is very weak. C. a valid living will is unavailable. D. signs of putrefaction are present. - Correct answers C What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A. 3:1 B. 15:2 C. 30:2 D. 5:1 - Correct answers B You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by: Select one: A. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid. B. depressing the sternum more than 2.5 inches in depth. C. compressing quickly and releasing slowly. D. compressing the sternum between the nipples. - Correct answers D Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? Select one: A. Back blows B. Finger sweeps C. Abdominal thrusts D. Chest thrusts - Correct answers D In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one: A. typically does not cause yellow skin. B. is not a communicable disease. C. can be prevented with a vaccination. D. is a far more transmittable disease. - Correct answers B You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. B. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital. D. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. - Correct answers D Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should: Select one: A. conclude that she has hypertension. B. reassess her blood pressure in 5 minutes. C. prepare for immediate transport. D. obtain a manual blood pressure. - Correct answers D Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. nature of illness B. medical history C. associated symptoms D. field diagnosis - Correct answers A In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. uncontrolled outbreaks. B. parasitic infection. C. epidemics. D. pandemics. - Correct answers D In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one: A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vagin*l bleeding, and stable vital signs B. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration C. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes D. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away - Correct answers C Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. have a fever. B. are bleeding. C. vomit. D. cough. - Correct answers D Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint? Select one: A. Aspirin B. Albuterol C. Oral glucose D. Ibuprofen - Correct answers D Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. H1N1 B. MRSA C. Avian flu D. Whooping cough - Correct answers B Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: Select one: A. has a greater ability to produce disease. B. is less resistant to treatment. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure. D. is a more contagious type of disease. - Correct answers A When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. B. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. C. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. D. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. - Correct answers B Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? Select one: A. Unequal breath sounds B. Palpable pain to the epigastrium C. Jugular venous distention D. Use of the accessory muscles - Correct answers C Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. air passing through fluid B. severe bronchoconstriction C. narrowing of the upper airways D. mucus in the larger airways - Correct answers A A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, B. an antihistamine. C. epinephrine. D. albuterol. - Correct answers C You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. B. bacterial infection of the epiglottis. C. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. D. inflammation of the bronchioles. - Correct answers C When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. an absence of breath sounds. B. normal breath sounds. C. abnormal breath sounds. D. diminished breath sounds. - Correct answers C In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Trachea D. Capillaries - Correct answers A Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Celiac sprue B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Cystic fibrosis D. Multiple sclerosis - Correct answers C You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). B. influenza Type A. C. tuberculosis. D. pneumonia. - Correct answers C A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. B. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. C. a unilaterally collapsed lung. D. fluid accumulation outside the lung. - Correct answers D "PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: A. seizure patients B. respiratory patients C. stroke patients D. cardiac patients - Correct answers B In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. B. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. D. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. - Correct answers C Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin B. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis C. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin D. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor - Correct answers A Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Narcotic overdose C. Severe anxiety D. Pulmonary edema - Correct answers C A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. B. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. D. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. - Correct answers C A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. D. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. - Correct answers A Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: A. who have experienced a head injury. B. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg. C. who have taken up to two doses. D. with a history of an ischemic stroke. - Correct answers A The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. coronary sinus. C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity. D. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body. - Correct answers C Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. right atrium. B. left ventricle. C. right ventricle. D. left atrium. - Correct answers A Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: Select one: A. excess stress. B. lack of exercise. C. hyperglycemia. D. family history. - Correct answers D A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. B. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. - Correct answers A Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. B. dry the chest if it is wet. C. contact medical control. D. perform CPR for 30 seconds. - Correct answers B Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: A. have had a stroke in the past. B. have chronic hypertension. C. are older than 40 years of age. D. regularly take illegal drugs. - Correct answers B After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. transport the patient at once. B. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm. C. assess for a carotid pulse. D. immediately resume CPR. - Correct answers D Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. C. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. - Correct answers C The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. the right side of the body. B. the right side of the face. C. breathing and blood pressure. D. heart rate and pupil reaction. - Correct answers A You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year- old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: Select one: A. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport. B. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity. C. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren. D. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. - Correct answers D A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. B. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. C. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused. - Correct answers D You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: Select one: A. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin. B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route. C. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. D. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. - Correct answers B Febrile seizures: Select one: A. are usually benign but should be evaluated. B. occur when a child's fever rises slowly. C. often result in permanent brain damage. D. are also referred to as absence seizures. - Correct answers A Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: Select one: A. kidneys. B. brain. C. liver. D. pancreas. - Correct answers C Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: A. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura B. A seizure that begins in one extremity C. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly D. A generalized seizure without incontinence - Correct answers B D. Confusion and fatigue - Correct answers D You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask. B. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport. C. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately. D. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport. - Correct answers C You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED. B. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. C. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. D. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis. - Correct answers C A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: Select one: A. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms. B. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. C. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. D. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours. - Correct answers A You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. ventilatory assistance and transport. B. recovery position and transport. C. oral glucose gel and transport. D. high-flow oxygen and transport. - Correct answers B A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. D. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention - Correct answers A Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? Select one: A. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. B. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness. C. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water. D. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis. - Correct answers B Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function? Select one: A. Spleen B. Large intestine C. Small intestine D. Stomach - Correct answers A Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A. Spleen B. Liver C. Kidney D. Pancreas - Correct answers A Functions of the liver include: Select one: A. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. B. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances. C. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar. D. absorption of nutrients and toxins. - Correct answers B Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: Select one: A. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position. B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. C. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen. D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles. - Correct answers C The parietal peritoneum lines the: Select one: A. retroperitoneal space. B. lungs and chest cavity. C. surface of the abdominal organs. D. walls of the abdominal cavity. - Correct answers D Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient? Select one: A. Never contact medical direction before completing the secondary assessment. B. Never perform a secondary assessment on a high-priority patient. C. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment. D. The secondary assessment must be performed prior to transport. - Correct answers C A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: Select one: A. determine the exact location and cause of his pain. B. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. C. transport him in a supine position. D. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. - Correct answers D Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: Select one: A. referred pain. B. radiating pain. C. visceral pain. D. remote pain. - Correct answers A Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? Select one: A. Blindness B. Hepatitis B C. Alcoholism D. Depression - Correct answers A A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: A. diabetic ketoacidosis B. hypoglycemic crisis C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma D. hyperglycemic crisis - Correct answers A A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect? Select one: A. Severe hypoglycemia B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Congestive heart failure D. Pulmonary embolism - Correct answers D You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. glucagon. B. insulin. C. dextrose. D. oxygen. - Correct answers B Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. B. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. C. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. D. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. - Correct answers D The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: Select one: A. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin. B. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. C. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. D. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults. - Correct answers D Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. polydipsia. B. polyphagia. C. dyspepsia. D. dysphasia. - Correct answers B Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: A. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. B. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin. C. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. D. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. - Correct answers C The normal blood glucose level is between: Select one: A. 30 and 150 mg/dL. B. 160 and 200 mg/dL. C. 80 and 120 mg/dL. D. 60 and 80 mg/dL. - Correct answers C During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: A. he has hemophilia A. B. he has thrombophilia. C. he has a thrombosis. D. his blood clots too quickly. - Correct answers A Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. requesting permission from medical control. B. assessing the patient's mental status. C. checking the medication's expiration date. D. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. - Correct answers D Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells. B. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. D. Most cells will function normally without glucose. - Correct answers C In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: Select one: A. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body. B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. C. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. D. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults. - Correct answers B The main function of the endocrine system is to _________. Select one: A. regulate blood flow B. produce glandular secretions C. regulate glucose and calcium D. maintain homeostasis - Correct answers D A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms? Select one: A. Pale, cool, and clammy skin A. protect itself B. go on alert C. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance D. All of these answers are correct. - Correct answers D A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. B. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. C. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. D. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. - Correct answers D Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself. Select one: A. injected poison B. irritating toxin C. deadly venom D. All of these answers are correct. - Correct answers D Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? Select one: A. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature. B. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary. C. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury D. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. - Correct answers A A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. B. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible. C. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. D. position her legs well above the level of her heart. - Correct answers C The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: A. 0.1; 0.01 B. 0.03; 0.3 C. 0.01; 0.1 D. 0.3; 0.15 - Correct answers D When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________. Select one: A. quickly, within 30 seconds. B. quickly, within 30 minutes. C. slowly, over several hours. D. slowly, over more than 30 minutes. - Correct answers B The stinger from a honeybee should be: Select one: A. irrigated with copious amounts of water. B. squeezed with tweezers and removed. C. left in place and covered. D. scraped away from the skin. - Correct answers D Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? Select one: A. The environment in which the patient is found B. The patient's family history C. The patient's general physical appearance D. The time of year in which the exposure occurred - Correct answers A Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. swelling. B. hives. C. burning. D. a wheal. - Correct answers B Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin B. A sense of impending doom C. Tightness in the chest or throat D. All of these answers are correct. - Correct answers C Patients may experience allergic reactions to which of the following substances? Select one: a. Insect or animal bites and stings b. Food and medications c. Plant material d. All of these answers are correct. - Correct answers D At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________. Select one: A. a large area of red, blotchy skin B. a series of small, raised pustules C. an uncomfortable depression in the skin D. a raised, well-defined area of the skin - Correct answers D Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rales B. Rhonchi C. Wheezing D. Stridor - Correct answers D A. alcohol intoxication. B. delirium tremens. C. acute schizophrenia. D. acute hypovolemia. - Correct answers B Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: A. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). B. crack cocaine. C. oxycodone (Percocet). D. ecstasy. - Correct answers C When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol. B. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot. C. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. D. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures. - Correct answers B A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: A. withdrawal. B. tolerance. C. addiction. D. dependence. - Correct answers B An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. gastric ulcers. B. CNS depression. C. liver failure. D. kidney failure. - Correct answers C Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: A. injection B. inhalation C. ingestion D. absorption - Correct answers C Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? Select one: A. Why was the substance ingested? B. How long ago was the substance taken? C. What type of substance was taken? D. How much of the substance was taken? - Correct answers A Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: A. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min B. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min C. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min D. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min - Correct answers C Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ___________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider. Select one: A. ingestion B. inhalation C. absorption D. injection - Correct answers D Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? Select one: A. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway B. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask C. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation D. Suctioning to clear the airway - Correct answers C Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: Select one: A. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. B. induces vomiting and empties the stomach. C. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. D. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs. - Correct answers A If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________. Select one: A. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department. B. safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary. C. not approach the vomitus. D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care. - Correct answers D As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: A. observe the scene for drug bottles. B. quickly gain access to the patient. C. look for drug paraphernalia. D. be alert for personal hazards. - Correct answers D Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: A. cholinergic. B. hypnotic. C. opioid. D. sympathomimetic. - Correct answers C How do poisons typically act to harm the body? Select one: A. By causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs B. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them C. By causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions D. By interfering with normal neurologic function - Correct answers B In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a psychiatric emergency occurs when a person: Select one: A. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month. B. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance. C. demonstrates agitation or violence or becomes a threat to himself or herself, or to others. D. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation. - Correct answers C Organic brain syndrome is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. B. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain. C. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to inadequate cerebral blood flow. D. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. - Correct answers D People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. substance abusers. B. those with a recent diagnosis of a serious illness. C. married males older than 30 years. D. children with parents addicted to alcohol. - Correct answers C The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: Select one: A. restrain the patient. B. ensure your safety. C. obtain proper consent. D. take vital signs. - Correct answers B The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: Select one: A. a chronic illness. B. drug abuse. C. advanced age. D. depression. - Correct answers D When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should: Select one: A. spend as little time with the patient as possible. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety. C. be direct and clearly state your intentions. D. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons. - Correct answers C Which of the following conditions or factors would be the LEAST likely to result in a change in behavior? Select one: A. exposure to excess heat or cold B. inadequate blood flow to the brain C. antihypertensive medications D. low blood glucose levels - Correct answers C Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? Select one: A. limited physical contact B. dimly lit environment C. elevated blood glucose D. alcohol withdrawal - Correct answers D Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? Select one: A. Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations. B. Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field. C. The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent. D. It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained. - Correct answers A You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system? Select one: A. rapid eye movement B. excessive tearing or crying C. an irregular pulse D. consistent eye contact - Correct answers A It is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may: Select one: A. be self-destructive. B. be homicidal as well. C. have a definitive plan. D. inject illicit drugs. - Correct answers B A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vagin*l bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagin*, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport. B. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vagin*l area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. D. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagin*, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. - Correct answers D A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease will typically complain of _________. Select one: A. bleeding associated with stress